The Bible is not a single document without any repeats. The writers of the Bible many times borrowed from other books, making some changes, then including them as part of their book. The question is, why would they do that?
In the first example,
I used Microsoft Word to compare sections of the Bible. The words of the two portions of scripture that are exactly the same are in black type. The text that is in red underlined is one version, red strike through is the other.
Here are the dates some think the books were written:
- Job: Considered earliest, but date unknown
- Genesis: 1445-1405 BC
- Exodus: 1445-1405 BC
- Leviticus: 1445-1405 BC
- Numbers: 1445-1405 BC
- Deuteronomy: 1445-1405 BC
- Psalms: 1410-450 BC
- Joshua: 1405-1385 BC
- Judges: 1043 BC
- Ruth: 1030-1010 BC
- Song of Songs: 971-965 BC
- Proverbs: 971-686 BC
- Ecclesiastes: 940-931 BC
- 1 Samuel: 931-722 BC
- 2 Samuel: 931-722 BC
- Obadiah: 850-840 BC
- Joel: 835-796 BC
- Jonah: 775 BC
- Amos: 750 BC
- Hosea: 750-710 BC
- Micah: 735-710 BC
- Isaiah: 700-681 BC
- Nahum: 650 BC
- Zephaniah: 635-625 BC
- Habakkuk: 615-605 BC
- Ezekiel: 590-570 BC
- Lamentations: 586 BC
- Jeremiah: 586-570 BC
- 1 Kings: 561-538 BC
- 2 Kings: 561-538 BC
- Judith*: Uncertain (538 BC-AD 70)
- Daniel: 536-530 BC
- Haggai: 520 BC
- Baruch*: 500-100 BC
- Zechariah: 480-470 BC
- Ezra: 457-444 BC
- 1 Chronicles: 450-430 BC
- 2 Chronicles: 450-430 BC
- Esther: 450-331 BC
- Malachi: 433-424 BC
- Nehemiah: 424-400 BC
- Susanna*: 400 BC-AD 70
- Psalm 151*: 400 BC-AD 100
- Letter of Jeremiah*: 307-317 BC
- Tobit*: 225-175 BC
- Ben Sira (Sirach)*: 200-175 BC
- Bel and the Dragon*: 200-100 BC
- Greek Esther*: 200-1 BC
- Prayer of Azariah*: 200-1 BC
- 1 Maccabees*: 150-100 BC
- 2 Maccabees*: 150-100 BC
- 1 Esdras*: 100 BC-AD 100
- Prayer of Manasseh*: 100-1 BC
- 3 Maccabees*: 100-1 BC
- 4 Maccabees*: 100-1 BC
- Wisdom*: 50-20 BC
- 2 Esdras**: AD 100-200
Jeremiah
In the following example, Jeremiah 51 (supposedly written 586-570 BC) talks about the King of Babylon and how Babylon is horrible and how God will destroy Babylon. Then in Jeremiah 52 the writer tells a partial story of King Zedekiah.
2 Kings
2 Kings 24 (supposedly written 25 years after Jeremiah) describes the sequence of Kings that ruled Jerusalem and the Kings from Babylon who took all the people out of Jerusalem. The story then continues in verse 17 with how the new king of Jerusalem, Mattaniah was renamed Zedekiah. The chapter ends with three verses, 18, 19, 20 about Zedekiah.
Supposedly Jeremiah was written first
It actually makes no sense if Jeremiah was written first (25 years earlier). If 2 Kings was written first, it would have been logical for Jeremiah to have copied 2 Kings. If Jeremiah was written first, it only makes sense if a portion of 2 Kings was added later to Jeremiah, after 2 Kings was written. I am going with the assumption, Jeremiah was written without chapter 52 (which does not fit the flow anyway). Then, I estimate years later, after 2 Kings 24 and 25 were written, Jeremiah chapter 52 was created by copying the verses from 2 Kings and added to Jeremiah.
The translators of each book into English used their own personal vernacular (“by” rather than “against” for example), which shows that the King James Version is not word for word what the earlier writers wrote. In general the meaning does not change much, except where numbers are changed.
“putting him into prison only in Jeremiah.
With such specificity, yet different day?
My father always said, “King James says it, I believe it, end of subject.”
I never got to ask him which day does he believe is the correct one in this example?
Continue to Example #2